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Surgical Principles and Procedures
Surgery
This document outlines fundamental principles of pre- and post-operative treatment, surgical risks, resuscitation, and various surgical procedures. It covers topics ranging from trauma management and wound healing to specific conditions like hernias, digestive bleeding, and tumors, as well as fluid and electrolyte balance and acid-base disorders.
Pre-operative care
Surgical procedures
Post-operative care
36 Questions
Hard
Ages 18+
Mar 30, 2026
About this Study Set
This study set covers Surgery through
36 practice questions.
This document outlines fundamental principles of pre- and post-operative treatment, surgical risks, resuscitation, and various surgical procedures. It covers topics ranging from trauma management and wound healing to specific conditions like hernias, digestive bleeding, and tumors, as well as fluid and electrolyte balance and acid-base disorders. Every question includes the correct answer so you can learn as you go — pick any format above to get started.
Questions & Answers
Browse all 36 questions from the
Surgical Principles and Procedures study set below.
Each question shows the correct answer — select a study format above to practice interactively.
1
What is the primary respiratory complication in the immediate postoperative period?
-
A
Pneumonia
-
B
Bronchopneumonia
-
C
Atelectasis
-
D
Pulmonary edema
2
Which of the following is considered a "hot shock"?
-
A
Hypovolemic shock
-
B
Cardiogenic shock
-
C
Septic shock
-
D
Neurogenic shock
3
What are the three fundamental pillars for diagnosing a thyroid nodule?
-
A
Ultrasound, BAAF, and TSH, T3, T4 levels
-
B
CT scan, MRI, and biopsy
-
C
Fine needle aspiration, thyroid scan, and hormone levels
-
D
Ultrasound, X-ray, and blood tests
4
In adult CPR, what is the recommended depth for chest compressions?
-
A
2 inches
-
B
1.5 inches
-
C
3 inches
-
D
1 inch
5
What is considered a high-output intestinal fistula?
-
A
Draining more than 200 ml in 24 hours
-
B
Draining more than 400-500 ml in 24 hours
-
C
Draining less than 100 ml in 24 hours
-
D
Draining more than 1000 ml in 24 hours
6
What is the normal diuretic rate for an adult?
-
A
0.1 to 0.5 ml/Kg/hour
-
B
0.5 to 1 ml/Kg/hour
-
C
1 to 2 ml/Kg/hour
-
D
2 to 3 ml/Kg/hour
7
What Glasgow Coma Scale score necessitates intubation for a patient with head trauma before transfer?
8
How should a polytraumatized patient in shock be treated initially?
-
A
As neurogenic shock
-
B
As cardiogenic shock
-
C
As septic shock
-
D
As hypovolemic shock
9
What justifies performing a minimal pleurostomy after a closed thoracic trauma?
-
A
Pneumothorax
-
B
Hemothorax
-
C
Subcutaneous emphysema without hemopneumothorax
-
D
Rib fractures
10
What is a consequence of a complex pelvic fracture?
-
A
Retroperitoneal hematoma
-
B
Pneumothorax
-
C
Cardiac tamponade
-
D
Abdominal distension
11
What is the recommended procedure for recent stab wounds in the flanks or lumbar region, even with hemodynamic stability?
-
A
Observation
-
B
Exploration
-
C
Conservative treatment
-
D
Antibiotics only
12
Does a negative abdominal puncture definitively rule out hemoperitoneum?
-
A
Yes
-
B
No
-
C
Only if done with ultrasound guidance
-
D
Only if repeated
13
What is the treatment for a "hot abscess"?
-
A
Antibiotics only
-
B
Incision and drainage with antibiotic therapy
-
C
Warm compresses
-
D
Aspiration
14
What is the purpose of a B.A.A.F. (Biopsy by Fine Needle Aspiration)?
-
A
Diagnosing thyroid tumors only
-
B
Diagnosing breast tumors only
-
C
Essential for etiological diagnosis of thyroid, breast, or other soft tissue tumors with diagnostic doubts
-
D
Detecting metastatic disease
15
What constitutes a surgical emergency among the following?
-
A
Pneumothorax
-
B
Emphysema
-
C
Bronchitis
-
D
Pleurisy
16
When a patient presents with acute abdominal pain, what should NOT be administered to facilitate physical examination?
-
A
IV fluids
-
B
Antibiotics
-
C
Analgesics
-
D
Laxatives
17
What are the most frequent causes of Digestive Bleeding (S.D.A.)?
-
A
Gastric ulcers, duodenal ulcers, esophageal varices, Mallory-Weiss syndrome
-
B
Hemorrhoids, anal fissures, diverticulitis
-
C
Pancreatitis, cholecystitis, liver disease
-
D
Gastritis, GERD, peptic ulcers
18
How should a breast physical examination be performed?
-
A
Only with the patient lying down on the right side
-
B
Only standing
-
C
Lying down, standing, and sitting
-
D
Only by a specialist
19
What is the predominant symptom of an anal fissure?
-
A
Bleeding
-
B
Itching
-
C
Intense pain after defecation
-
D
Constipation
20
What is the most serious complication of deep vein thrombosis?
-
A
Pulmonary embolism
-
B
Superficial thrombophlebitis
-
C
Hemorrhage
-
D
Edema
21
Is an abdominal puncture useful for detecting hemoperitoneum?
-
A
No, it is unreliable
-
B
Yes, it is useful
-
C
Only if the patient is in shock
-
D
Only if done by a surgeon
22
What is fundamental in the prophylaxis of gas gangrene for contaminated wounds with muscle necrosis?
-
A
Debridement and adequate treatment of wounds
-
B
Primary closure of all wounds
-
C
Early antibiotic administration
-
D
Tetanus prophylaxis
23
What radiological image is typical of sigmoid volvulus?
-
A
"U" shape
-
B
"Omega" or "coffee bean" image
-
C
"Bird's beak" sign
-
D
"Apple core" lesion
24
What clinical elements are used to diagnose Cardiac Arrest (PCR)?
-
A
Absence of peripheral pulse, absence of cardiac beats, absence of respiratory movements
-
B
Bradycardia, hypotension, pallor
-
C
Chest pain, diaphoresis, altered mental status
-
D
Tachycardia, hypertension, irregular breathing
25
What is the initial maneuver to maintain a patent airway?
-
A
Chin lift
-
B
Jaw thrust
-
C
Head tilt-chin lift
-
D
Neck hyperextension
26
What does the rescuer ventilating palpate when the other rescuer is performing chest compressions?
-
A
Carotid pulse
-
B
Radial pulse
-
C
Femoral pulse
-
D
Apical pulse
27
What is the drug of choice in CPR?
-
A
Atropine
-
B
Epinephrine
-
C
Lidocaine
-
D
Amiodarone
28
What is the main risk factor for the elderly undergoing surgery?
-
A
Diabetes Mellitus
-
B
Hypertension
-
C
Processes associated with atherosclerosis and aging
-
D
Obesity
29
What are the main postoperative complications affecting the respiratory system?
-
A
Pneumonia, bronchopneumonia, and atelectasis
-
B
Pulmonary embolism, pleural effusion, pneumonia
-
C
Asthma, COPD, pneumonia
-
D
Atelectasis, ARDS, pneumonia
30
What are the main postoperative complications in diabetic patients?
-
A
Neurological complications
-
B
Cardiovascular and sepsis-related complications
-
C
Renal complications
-
D
Gastrointestinal complications
31
What generally causes paralytic ileus?
-
A
Sepsis and dehydration
-
B
Electrolyte disturbances and/or sepsis
-
C
Peritonitis
-
D
Intestinal obstruction
32
What should be controlled in the immediate preoperative period regarding excretory pathways?
-
A
Urine output
-
B
Bowel evacuation
-
C
Nasogastric tube patency
-
D
Skin preparation
33
What are the characteristics of hypovolemic shock?
-
A
Arterial hypotension, mental confusion, sweating, distal cyanosis, oliguria, tachycardia, metabolic acidosis, low CVP
-
B
Hypertension, bradycardia, warm skin, bounding pulse, high urine output
-
C
Bradycardia, hypotension, cool clammy skin, weak pulse, oliguria, metabolic alkalosis, high CVP
-
D
Hypertension, tachycardia, warm dry skin, normal pulse, normal urine output, no acidosis, normal CVP
34
What is "anthrax" as described in the text?
-
A
A bacterial infection caused by Bacillus anthracis
-
B
An infection caused by Staphylococcus and Streptococcus presenting as a "scum" lesion
-
C
A viral infection affecting the skin
-
D
A parasitic infection of the intestines
35
What glands does hidradenitis affect?
-
A
Sebaceous glands
-
B
Apocrine sweat glands
-
C
Eccrine sweat glands
-
D
Mammary glands
36
What does a furuncle affect?
-
A
A sweat gland
-
B
A sebaceous gland
-
C
A hair follicle-sebaceous apparatus
-
D
The epidermis
